Hematology Theory Paper

Q.1.   The terminal sugars of the antigen:

a) Are responsible for specificity of the antigen

b) Are responsible for antigenicity of the antigen

c) Are proteinous in nature

d) Will not be found in infants cells

e) Are polysaccharides

 

Q.2.   The following are used to reduce the Zeta potential:

a) De-ionized water

b) A-serum

c) 22% bovine albumin

d) Enzyme

e) Normal saline

 

Q.3.   Factors affecting immunogenicity are:

a) The chemical structure of the antigen

b) The race of the host

c) Route of introduction

d) The diet of the host

e) The occupation of the host

 

Q.4.   Neutralization test:

a) Is used to detect leucocytes antibodies

b) Cannot detect immune antibodies

c) Confirm if an individual is a secretor or non-secretor

d) Is used in Rhesus grouping

e) Can be applied in disputed parentage cases

 

Q.5.   The following are some of the risks of blood transfusion on the recipient:

a) Loss of appetite

b) Viral hepatitis

c) HIV infection

d) Blood group alteration

e) Loss of weight

 

Q.6.   Red Blood cells antigens are made up of:

a) Polysaccharides portion

b) Amino Acids portion

c) Enzymes

d) Globulins

e) Mineral salts

 

Q.7.   Blood Transfusion reaction may occur due to:

a) Incompatible blood transfusion

b) Malaria

c) Nervous syndrome

d) Allergy

e) AIDS

 

Q.8.   If a father is homozygous A and the mother heterozygous B their offspring will have the following blood group:

a) A

b) AB

c) B

d) O

e) A, B AB and O

 

Q.9.   Antigen synthesis and insertion onto the cell membrane occurs during red blood maturation in the:

a) Spleen

b) Bone marrow

c) Liver

d) Heart

e) Kidneys

 

Q.10. Plasma is not preferred in Blood Transfusion for serological tests because:

a) Plasma contains complement components

b) Calcium and magnesium ions have been removed

c) Fibrinogen is present

d) Plasma forms fibrin clot

e) It gives a positive reaction in hemolysis

 

Q.11. Indirect coomb’s test differs from direct coomb’s test in that:

a) It requires incubation at 37 C

b) It requires patient cells

c) It requires patient serum

d) It does not require incubation

e) It detects sensitized cells in VIVO

 

Q.12. The following enzymes can be extracted from fruits:

a) Trypsin

b) Bromelin

c) Papain

d) Trypsinogen

e) Enterokinase

 

Q.13. Individuals who lack Se gene and of the phenotype Oh.

a) Secrete A blood group-specific substance only

b) Secrete H blood group-specific substance only

c) Secretes A and H blood group-specific substances

d) Secretes A and O substances

e) Is a non-secretor

 

Q.14. Most of the Rhesus antibodies are:

a) IgM

b) Natural antibodies

c) IgA

d) Immune antibodies

e) IgG

 

Q.15. Terminal sugar N-acetylgalactosamine and D-galactose determine the specificity of blood group:

a) AB

b) A only

c) B only

d) D only

e) N. only

 

Q.16. Rhesus null phenotype cells will only react with:

a) Anti D

b) Anti E

c) Anti C

d) Anti e

e) None of the above antibodies

 

Q.17. Pooled blood is used in:

a) Cross-matching

b) Antibody screening test

c) Indirect coomb’s test

d) Antibody identification test

e) Du testing

 

Q.18. If genes are co-dominant this means that:

a) All genes will be suppressed

b) Is a congenital abnormality

c) Any gene present will be expressed

d) Only O-gene will be expressed on RBCs

e) Inhibition of genes does not occur

 

Q.19. The surface charge of Red Blood Cells is maintained by:

a) A antigens

b) B antigens

c) AB antibodies

d) O antigens

e) Sialic acid resides on the surface RBC

 

Q.20. Anti-human serum specific for IgG antibodies is produced by injecting rabbies with purified human:

a) Alpha globulin

b) Gamma globulin

c) Beta globulin

d) Delta globulin

e) Mu globulin

 

Q.21. Sese gene is responsible for:

a) Rhesus blood group system

b) Bombay phenotype

c) Hemolysin

d) ABH secretion

e) Cellular antigen

 

Q.22. The following anticoagulants are used for Blood Transfusion:

a) CPDA

b) ACD

c) EDTA

d) Ammonium oxalate

e) Flouride

 

Q.23. The most abudant immunoglobulin is:

a) IgM

b) IgG

c) IgA

d) IgD

e) IgE

 

Q.24. In the ABO blood group system there are:

a) 4 genotypes

b) 4 phenotypes

c) 6 genotypes

d) 3 phenotypes

e) 3 genotypes

 

Q.25. Anti C will react with the following red blood cells:

a) Rh1 cells

b) rhy cells

c) Rh2 cells

d) Rho cells

e) rhu cells

 

Q.26. Extravascular transfusion reaction occurs in the:-

a) Brain

b) Esophagus

c) Stomach

d) Liver

e) Kidney