Hematology Theory Paper

Q1.    Anti-M:

a) Shows dosage phenomenon

b) Reacts at 56°C

c) Reacts in acidic Medium

d) Does not react in 22% bovine albumin medium

d) Does not react with enzyme-treated cells

 

 

Q2. The offspring of parents who are both heterozygous A will be blood

group:

a) AO

b) A

c) 0

c) AB

d) Oh

 

Q3. Anti A2 reacts with the following except:

(a) 0 A1 cells

(b) A2 B Cells

(c) A2 Cells

(d) A1 Cells

d) A3 Cells

 

Q4. Linkage between secretor gene and the following blood group exists:

a) Duffy

b) Lewis

c) Lutheran

d) Kell

d) MNSs

 

Q5. Cord cell reacts weakly or not at all with:-

a) anti-Lea

b) anti-I

c) anti-K

d) anti-D

e) anti-S

 

Q6. The genes responsible for Lutheran Blood group system: –

a) Lea

b) Leb

c Lua

d) Lub

e) Fya

 

Q7. Anti-P1 is inhibited by:-

a0 22% bovine albumin

B) Milk

c) Normal saline

d) Hydatid cyst fluid

e) Acidic pH

 

Q8. The following are cold auto-antibodies:-

a) anti-Fya

b) anti-Xga

c) anti-Lea

d) anti-JKa

e) anti-I

 

Q9. Anti-I

a) Is associated with mycoplasma pneumonia infection

b) Is not a common auto-antibody

c) Reacts best at 4°C

d) Is not associated with cold agglutinin disease

e) Is the same as anti-i

 

Q10. Anti-e reacts with the following cells: –

a) Rho

b) rh

c) rhy

d) hr

e) Rhz

 

 

Q11. Mixed field agglutination is a characteristic of reactions with antibodies

from the following systems:

a) MNSs system

b) Kidd system

c) Lutheran system

d) ABO system

e) Rhesus system

 

Q12. Lack of detectable ABO antigens can occur in patients suffering from:-

a) Alcoholism

b) Carcinoma of stomach

c) Carcinoma of the pancreas

d) Blood pressure

e) Diabetes

 

Q13. ABO antigens can first be detected:

a) 6(six) months of foetal life

b) six weeks of foetal life

c) 6 months after birth

d) six weeks after birth

e) six months after birth

 

Q14. The gene Ro is equivalent to fisher-race genes:

a) Dĉē

b)dCē

c) DĉE

d) DCE

e) DCē

 

Q15. The possible offspring’s phenotype of a father Rhesus DCē /DĉE and

mother Rhesus DCē/DCē are/is:

a) DCē/DCē

b) Dĉē/Dĉē

c) DĉE/DCē

d) DCē/dĉē

e) dċē/dCE

 

Q16. Which of the following adjuvants are used in the preparation of Coomb’s

Reagent:

a) Freund’s adjuvant

b) 4% Sodium alginate

c) Sodium bisulphate

d) Field’s adjuvant

e) Aluminium phosphate

 

Q17. Which of the following blood components may carry a risk of CMV

infection:

a) Fresh frozen plasma

b) Cryoprecipitate

c) Platelet

d) White blood cells

e) Red blood cells

 

Q18. Inadequate washing in Coomb’s test: –

a) Causes haemolysis

b) Inhibits Coomb’s reaction

c) Results in false-negative reaction

d) Results in false-positive reaction

e) Increases sensitivity

 

 

Q19. Anti-N can be prepared from: –

a) Vicia graminea

b) Ulex europeaus

c) Dolichous biflorus

d) Bauhinea purpurea

e) Iberis amara

 

Q20. The auto-antibody associated with Paroxysmal Cold

Haemoglobulineamia is:

a) anti V

b) anti C

c) anti K

d) anti P

e )anti A

 

 

 

Q21. The following antigen is found in P1 phenotype:

a) Pk

b) P1

c) P2

d) P3

e) P

 

Q22. The antigens of the following blood group system are not well developed

at birth:

a) ABO

b) Rhesus

c) Kell

d) Lutheran

e) Lewis

 

Q23. It is known that the MHC complex is inherited on the:

a) Short arm of chromosome 8

b) Longarm of chromosome 9

c) Longarm of chromosome 12

d) The short arm of chromosome 7

e) The short arm of chromosome 6

 

Q24. HLA –E, HLA-F, HLA-G and HLA-H are newly recognized molecules in:-

a) Class V

b) Class IV

c) Class III

d) Class II

e) Class I

 

Q25. Recipient and donor of a solid organ should be tested for: –

a) MLC

b) HLA-A and HLA-B antigens

c) HLA-DR antigens

d) HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-DR antigens

e) HTLA antigens

 

Q26. Rhesus immune globulin is effective in the prevention of H.D.N.B. due to which of the following antibodies: –

a) Anti E

b) Anti-e

c) Anti C

d) Anti D

e) Anti CD

 

Q27. IgM and IgG antibodies are differentiated in the serum using: –

a) Enzyme techniques

b) Polybrene

c) Neutralization technique

d) Direct coomb’s test

e) 2-mercaptoethanol (2-ME)

 

Q28.  Antibody produced to T-independent antigens is:

a) IgA

b) IgD

c) IgM

d) IgG

e) IgE

 

Q29. The change in the production of IgM to IgG is an example of: –

a) Epitope switching

b) Isotype switching

c) Immune surveillance

d) Antibody specificity

e) Antigen specificity

 

Q30. In humans, B Cells mature in the: –

a) Bursa of fabricus

b) Liver

c) Stomach

d) Bone-marrow

d) Thymus

 

Q31. The practice of physicians monitoring the appropriateness of other

physician’s transfusion practices are called: –

a) Quality control

b) Quality improvement

c) Utilization review

d) Asset management

d) Quantity assurance

 

Q32. An essential component of quality monitoring is: –

a) Exceeding regulatory requirement

b) Defining physicians services

c) Documentation

d) Defining laboratory personnel services

e) Monitoring a list of specific patient care activities.

 

Q33. The minimum frequency of documenting the temperature of refrigerators

freezers and water bath is:-

a) Monthly

b)c) Each day of use

c) Quarterly

d) Weekly

e) Daily

 

Q34. The recommended disposal method for a unit of blood that is positive for

infectious diseases is:-

a) Draining the bag in a laboratory sink

b) Give your colleague to prepare media

c) Bury in a pit outside the laboratory

d) Mix with 10% jik solution

e) Incinerate

 

Q35. Transfusion of incompatible blood is sometimes followed by: –

a) Cancer

b) Epilepsy

c) Brain damage

d) Renal failure

e) Heart disease

 

Q36. Extravascular red cell destruction can be avoided by:-

a) Carrying out minor crossmatch

b) Carrying out an antibody screening test in all recipient serum

c) Always giving blood group Oˉve

d) Carrying out an antibody screening test in all donors serum

e) Monitoring the flow of blood during a transfusion

 

Q37. Transfusion of Red cell concentrate is indicated in-patient suffering from

the following condition(s):-

a) Iron deficiency anaemia

b) Leukaemia or aplastic anaemia

c) Chronic renal failure

d) Megaloblastic anaemia

e) Haemolytic anaemia

 

Q38. The following blood group system cannot be used in disputed paternity: –

a) P blood group system

b) ABO blood group system

c) Lu blood group system

d) Rhesus blood group system

e) MNSs blood group system

 

Q39. An alarm system of a blood bank refrigerator: –

a) Should be connected to the main supply with the refrigerator

b) Should be connected to a separate circuit system

c) Should give audible and visible signals

d) Should be operated manually

e) Should be built inside the refrigerator

 

Q40. Blood stored in a dark refrigerator develop: –

a) Yellow colour

b) Red colour

c) Golden colour

d) Green colour

e) Purplish colour

 

 

Q41. The refrigerator sensor must be placed in to: –

a) Methylated spirit

b) 10% glycerol

c) Freezing compartment

d) Air

e) Water

 

Q42. In Rhesus haemolytic disease of the newborn

a) Anaemic is severe

b) Osmotic fragility test is increased

c) Direct Coomb’s test is usually positive for the baby’s cells

d) Haemoglobin is normal

e) Spherocytes are presence.

 

Q43. The IgA deficiency is associated with

a) Febrile transfusion reaction

b) Urticaria transfusion reaction

c) Allergic reaction

d) Anaphylactic reaction

e) Circulation overload

 

Q44. Which of the following maintain the viability of the red blood cells:-

a) Plasma

b) Electrolytes

c) Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)

d) Glucose

e) Fibrinogens

 

Q45. The following blood group system gene(s) are not carried on autosomes;

a) MNSŝ

b) Xg System

c) Duffy system

d) ABO system

e) Rhesus system

 

Q46. Which antibody is identified in the given antibody identification chart?

 

AntigenRhoRhRh’’Rhzrhrhrh’’rhy
X++++

 

a) Anti D

b) Anti C

c) Anti E

d) Anti ĉ

e) Anti e

 

 

 

Q47. The main function of a placenta is/are: –

a) Antibody production

b) Assist in child growth

c) Exchange of substances between the mother and the foetus

d) Prevent kernicterus

e) Protect the foetus

 

Q48. The following is/are associated with exchange transfusion

a) It is indicated in case of accidents

b) It is recommended in anaemic patients

c) It corrects anaemia

d) It reduces toxic bilirubin

e) It recommends use of old blood

 

 

Q49. The best storage temperature for platelets concentrate is: –

a) 4ºC

b) 8ºC

c) ROOM temperature

d) –20ºC

e) 37ºC

 

Q50. A delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction can be caused by: –

a) Anti Fya

b) Anti K

c) Anti M

d) Anti D

e) Anti P

 

Q51. Washed red blood cells are transfused to a patient suffering from:-

a) Diabetes

b) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria

c) Thalassaemia

d) HDNB

e) Transfusion reaction

 

Q52. 22% bovine albumin is composed of; –

a) Calcium chloride

b) Normal saline

c) 4% sodium azide

d) Caprylate

e) Sodium sulphate

 

Q53. Estimation of transfused red cell survival is recommended when: –

a) Compatible blood is transfused

b) Incompatibility is reported

c) Homozygous blood is transfused

d) Patient develop haemolytic anaemia

e) Old blood is transfused

 

Q54. The following are donor recruitment tools Except:

a) Donor education

b) Giving sodas to blood donor after donating

c) Exhibitions during national activities

d) Advertising in media

e) Giving money to donors to encourage them

 

Q55.  In the HLA system: –

a) Majority of the antibodies are IgG

b) Majority of the antibodies are IgM

c) Cytotoxicity test is useful

d) The fluorescent antibody test is done

e) Majority of the antibodies are IgE

 

Q56. Bombay phenotype: –

a) Has a high amount of H antigen

b) Has a high amount of H antibodies

c) It lacks both A and B antibodies

d) Reacts strongly with A B and O cells

e) It has H-gene

 

Q57. The cadaver can donate the following organs; _

a) Liver

b) Spleen

c) Kidney

d) Pancreas

e) Heart

 

Q58. In the intravascular haemolytic reaction: –

There is free haemoglobin in the urine

Complement component are involved

Complement system mechanism is not involved

There is a rapid increase of unconjugated bilirubin

There is a very slow destruction of red blood cells

 

Q59. Which of the following cells are found in peripheral blood film of patient

suffering from haemolytic transfusion reactions: –

a0 Sickle cells

b) Megaloblastic cells

c) Heinz bodies

d) Crenated cells

e) Microcytic cells

 

Q60. Transfused red blood cells survival can be investigated by: –

a) Reticulocyte count method

b) Differential agglutination method

c) Radio-isotope method

d) Estimating blood volume

e) 2-mercaptoethanol technique

 

 

Q61. The following are considered risk behaviour in donors EXCEPT: –

a) Bisexuality

b) Homosexuality

c) Intravenous drug abuse

d) Skin scarification

e) Heterosexuality

 

Q62. In Kenyan public hospital, test is done to detect the following disease

in donated blood EXCEPT: –

a) Hepatitis A

b) Hepatitis B

c) Hepatitis C

d) Malarial parasites

e) HIV 1 and 2

 

Q63. Platelets can be separated from whole blood by: –

A heavy spin followed by a light spin

A light spin followed by a heavy spin

A single light spin

A single heavy spin

A heavy spin followed by another heavy spin

 

Q64. Hydatid cyst fluid: –

a) Reacts with anti-Lua

b) Is found in echinococcus granulosus

c) Reacts with anti-M

d) Inhibits anti P1

e) Inhibits anti-A and anti B

 

Q65. The criteria for choosing a good grouping sera include: –

a) Antigencity

b) Titre

c) Specificity

d) Viscosity

e) Avidity

 

Q66. Lectins with B antigen specificity is/are

a) Crotalaria mucronata

b) Phaseolus lunatus

c) Vicia graminea

d) Lotus tetragonolobus

e) Dolichous biflorus