Hematology Theory Paper

Q.1.   To improve tissue oxygenation without over-loading the circulation:

a) Exchange transfusion is done

b) Whole blood is transfused

c) Plasma is transfused

d) Packed cells are transfused

e) Surgery is necessary


Q.2.   A patient must be transfused with his own blood group unless in cases of:

a) Laboratory

b) Open heart surgery

c) Haemolytic disease of the newborn

d) Burns

e) Aged patients


Q.3.   1gG and 1gM immunoglobulin can be differentiated by:

a) Serum treatment with enzymes

b) AHG technique

c) Treating serum with 2 – mercaptoethanol

d) Electrophoresis

e) Enzyme technique


Q.4.   A record that should be kept indefinitely is a record of:

a) Compatibility testing

b) Refrigerator temperature

c) Blood inspection prior to the issue

d) Donor medical history and physical


Q.5.   The management of the testing process that documents the accuracy and reproducibility of a test is called:

a)      Quality control

b) Quality assessment

c) Quality assurance

d) Quality audit

e) Quality improvement


Q.6.   Blood group specific substances that are controlled by Se gene are:

a) Water-soluble

b) Glycoprotein


Amino acids

e) Alcohol soluble


Q.7.   Variants of D antigen (Low-grade Du)

a) Reacts strongly with commercially prepared anti D

b) Can only be detected using Coomb’s reagent

c) Cannot stimulate the production of anti-D

d) Can stimulate the production of anti-D

e) Reacts only in saline RT



Q.8.   The most important consideration in the selection and administration of blood and blood components is:

a) The clinical condition of the patient

b) The results of laboratory testing

c) The cost of the treatment

d) The component inventory

e) The HIV status of the patient


Q.9.   The best blood product that can be given to a patient deficient in IgA is:

a) Whole blood

b) Red blood cells concentrate

c) Leucocyte porn blood

d) Cryoprecipitate

e) None of the above


Q.10. Fresh Frozen Plasma is the component of choice for the management of:

a) Multiple factor deficiency                 b)         Factor VIII deficiency

c) Factor IX deficiency                         d)         Hypovolemia

e) Factor X deficiency


Q.11. Cryoprecipitate is indicated:

a) For the management of Factor VII deficiency

b) As a source of viable granulocytes

c) For patients with factor VIII inhibitors

d) For the treatment of factor VIII deficiency

e) For the treatment of severe anaemia


Q.12. Inhibition of the serological reactivity of an antibody by reacting it with soluble antigen is known as:

a) Coomb’s testing                      b)      Albumin addition method

c) Titration test                                   d)         Inhibition test

e) Neutralization test


Q.13. Plants agglutinins are also referred to as:

a) Lectins                                  b)         Phytagglutinins

c) Pseudo agglutinins                 d)         Antigens

e) Poly agglutinins


Q.14. A pre-transfusion test that utilizes the patient red cells and the plasma from the donor unit is known as:

a) A major crossmatch                        b)      A minor crossmatch

c) Antibody screening test                    d)         Direct Coomb’s test

e) Auto control test


Q.15. Fya, M and N red blood cells are destroyed by:

a) 22% bovine albumin                                 b)         Enzymes

c) Low ionic strength saline (LISS)                 d)         Low ionic polycations

e) Papain


Q.16. Anticoagulant/preservative solutions are designed to perform which of the following functions?

a) Prevent product contamination with microorganisms

b) Inactivate viruses

c) Ensure 90% red cell viability at expired date

d) Prevent blood from clotting

e) Increase the life span of transfused cells


Q.17. The addition of adenine to anticoagulant/preservative solution provides:

a) A substrate for glycolysins

b) Improves O2 delivery by transfused cell

c) Enhances red blood cells viability

d) Reduces the toxicity of the anticoagulant

e) Maintains 2 – 3 DPG levels better


Q.18. Levels of red cell ATP are associated with:

a) Red cell viability

b) Increases of blood shelf life

c) Reduction of intravascular levels of Na+ and K+

d) The survival of white cells before transfusion

e) Maintenance of pH level


Q.19. Which of the following is an accurate standard of blood storage?

a) Monitoring of internal temperatures every 8 hours

b) Audible and visible signals that function throughout the day

c) An original alarm check upon receipt of the instrument

d) A 24 hours emergency back-up system

e) Monitoring cold room temperature after every two days


Q.20. Which of the following anticoagulant is not used in Blood Transfusion Centres?

a) Acid Citrate Dextrose                                b)         Citrate-phosphate Dextrose

c) Citrate-phosphate Dextrose-Adenine         d)         Heparin

e) Alserver


Q.21. the graft-vs-host disease can be prevented by:

a) The use of fresh whole blood

b) The use of washed red blood cell

c) Using blood products donated by close relatives

d) Irradiating red blood cells prior to infusion

e) Using fresh frozen plasma always


Q.22. Hypertensive donors who are taking medication and who have controlled their blood pressure are:

a) Acceptable to donate                        b)         Deferred for 6 months

c) Deferred for a year                           d)         Permanently deferred

e) Asked to take medicine before being allowed to donate


Q.23. Which of the following blood components may carry a risk of CMV infection?

a) Fresh frozen plasma                        b)         Cryoprecipitate

c) Platelets                                 d)      Parked cells

e) All of the above


Q.24. Which of the following is an absolute contra-indication to autologous donations?

a) Weightless than 110 pounds

b) Bacteraemia

c) Systolic blood pressure of 200 mmg/Hg

d) The pulse of 43 beats per minute


Q.25. The specificity of the antibody described by Landsteiner and Wiener that was produced in rabbits injected with Rhesus monkey red cells was later found to be:

a) Anti D                                    b)      Anti C

c) Anti Lw                         d)      Anti Rh29

e) Anti V


Q.26. Anti D is a clinically significant antibody because:

a) It is capable of activating complement

b) It is naturally occurring in all D-negative healthy adults

c) It can cause haemolytic transfusion reaction

d) It does not cross the placental barrier

e) It is more potent than all other Rhesus antibodies


Q.27. A patient has the following Rhesus antigen typing results:


Anti D                  anti D                  anti E          anti c          anti e

+                +                   –                 –                +


Which of the following is/are the probable genotype?

R1 R1




Rz R1


Q.28. The common cause of false-positive anti D testing:

a) The deterioration of reagents

b) Failure to follow manufacturers’ directions

c) Spontaneous agglutination of red cells due to a positive DCT

d) Rouleaux formation


Q.29. A blood group ‘A’ man marries a group ‘AB’ woman.  The father of the man is a group ‘O’.  What are the possible blood groups of their offspring?

a) A, B, AB and O

b) A and B only

c) A, B and O

d) A, B and AB

e) AB only


Q.30. The immunodominant sugar that confers blood group A and B specificity is:

a) L – fucose                             b)      D – galactose

c) N – acetylgalactosamine          d)      L – Glucose

e) D – Glucose


Q.31. The O gene has no detectable product and is therefore termed:

a) Recessive                      b)      Dominant

c) Co-dominant                          d)         Amorphic

e) Alleles


Q.32. Fischer-Race gene complex DCe is equivalent to Wiener:

a) r                          b)      R1

c) R2                                d)      ry

e) Ro


Q.33. 1gM and 1gG immunoglobulins can be differentiated by:

a) Serum treatment with enzymes

b) AHG technique

c) Treating serum with 2 – mercapto-ethanol

d) Electrophoresis

e) Enzyme technique


Q.34. Direct Combs test is essential in the diagnosis of:

a) Hepatitis

b) Haemolytic disease of the newborn

c) Diabetes

d) Auto-immune haemolytic Anaemia

e) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome


Q.35. The best storage temperature for platelet concentrate is:

a) -20°C                   b)      8°C

c) 0°C                      d)      RT

e) 18 – 25°C


Q.36. It is now known that the MHC complex is inherited on the:

a) The short arm of chromosome 6             b)         Short arm of chromosome 8

c) Longarm of chromosome 9              d)         Long arm of chromosome 12

e) Longarm of chromosome 6


Q.37. For solid organ transplant, recipients and donors are often tested for:

a) HLA-A, -B and –DR antigen              b)         HLA – A and –B antigens

c) HLA – DR antigens only          d)      HTLA antigen

e) HLA-A and –DR antigen only


Q.38. When a child inherits a trait that neither of the parents has it, is regarded as:

a) A direct exclusion          b)      An indirect exclusion

c) Inconclusive                          d)      Unlikely

e) The first order of exclusion



Q.39. A disease association exists between

HLA-B5 and Idiopathic haemochromatosis

HLA- B27 and ankylosing spondylitis

HLA- DR2 and narcolepsy

HLA – DR5 and insulin-dependent diabetes

HLA – BR7 and insulin-independent diabetes


Q.40. The most common cause of morbidity and mortality associated with haemolytic transfusion reaction is:

a) Hypoxia                                 b)         Respiratory failure

c) Acute renal failure                           d)         Cardiac failure

e) Oedema


Q.41. Acute intravascular hemolysis is most commonly associated with antibodies of the following blood group system:

a) ABO                                      b)      Rhesus blood group system

c) Kidd blood group                    d)      Duffy blood group system

e) MNSS blood group system


Q.42. Transfusion reactions may occur due to bacterial contamination of the following unit(s):

a) Fresh Frozen plasma                        b)         Red blood cells conc.

c) Granulocytes pheresis                     d)         Platelet concentrate

e) Cryoprecipitate


Q.43. If no data regarding critical titre are available, which of the following titre values is frequently used as cut off?

a) 8                                           b)      16

c) 32                                         d)      64

e) 128


Q.44. Anti C will react with:

a) Rh2 cells b)      Rh1 cells

c) rh1 cells d)      Rh2 cells

e) Rho cells


Q.45. Anti – I is:

a) Found in patients with pneumonia

b) Is a warm antibody

c) Encountered in patients with infectious mononucleosis

d) Found in the serum of a patient with reticulosis

e) Reacts strongly with infants’ red blood cells


Q.46. The genes responsible for Lutheran blood group systems is/are:

a) Lea

b) Lae

c) Lua

d) Lub

e) Lae


Q.47. The autoantibody associated with paroxysmal cold haemoglobulinemia shows specificity with the following antigens:

a) 1                b)      D

c) P                d)      K

e) A


Q.48. If the father is Xga+ and the mother is Xgci- their children will be:

a) All sons Xga+

b) All daughters Xga+

c) All sons Xga-

d) All daughters Xga-

e) Fifty fifty chances


Q.49. Cord cells will react weakly or not all with:

a) Anti-K                  b)      Anti P

c) Anti S         d)      Anti I

e) Anti i


Q.50. The following enzymes are used to treat red cells in blood transfusion:

a) Alkaline phosphatase                      b)         Trypsin

c) Bromalin                               d)      Renin

e) Glucose 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase


Q.51. Which of the following are cold antibodies?

a) Anti Lea

b) Anti Fya

c) Anti JKa

d) Anti Kga

e) Anti I


Q.52. Which of the following statements is/are true of anti-Lea?

a) It is produced by Lea-b- secretors

b) It usually clinically significant

c) It sometimes activates the complement

d) It causes severe Haemolytic disease of the newborn

e) It is a warm antibody


Q.53. The following are antibodies from NNSs system, which one is insignificant?

a) Anti S         b)      Anti U

c) Anti s         d)      Anti N

e) Anti M


Q.54. Anti-Fya is detected by:

a) Heat-treatment of red cells at 56°C

b) Ficin pre-treatment of red cells

c) Coomb’s technique

d) Incubation at room temperature and below

e) Inhibition technique



Q.55. Cells are washed in serological tests because:

a) Leukocytes inhibit antigen/antibody reactions

b) Unwashed cells do not react with anti sere

c) To expose the antigenic sites

d) Serum and other protein fragments may interfere with test

e) To increase the Zeta potential


Q.56. The Paul-Bunnell test is useful in the diagnosis of:

a) Rheumatoid arthritis                       b)         Rheumatoid heart disease

c) Infectious mononucleosis                 d)         Glandular fever

e) PNH


Q.57. C2, C4 and factor B are inactive precursor molecules inherited in which region of the MHC complex

Class I                                  (b)     Class II              (c) Class III

(d)     Class IV                        (e) Class V


Q.58. Which of the following can phytate-agglutinin be prepared from:

(a)      Saliva                                    (b)     Ulex europeaus

          (c)       Dolichous biflorus                   (d)     Hogs                    (e)      Pigs


Q.59. The most abundant immunoglobulin in plasma is:

(a)      1gM                              (b)     1gA                               (c)      1gE

(d)     1gD                              (e)      1gG


Q.60. Circle the blood group system that is/are of little or no use in disputed paternity:

a) ABO blood group system                  (b)         Rhesus blood group system

c) Lewis blood group system                (d)     Li blood group system

e) Duffy


Q.61. The blood group-specific substances that depend on Se gene are:



Water-soluble blood group-specific substances

Alcohol soluble blood group-specific substances

Those found in the body tissues


Q.62. Blood can be stored indefinitely in:

a) ACD                    (b)     Thymol       (c)         Glycerin

(d)     Liquid nitrogen     (e)      Kaolin



Q.63. Cells form an individual whose genotype is rr reacts with:

(a)      Anti – D               (b)     Anti – C               (c)         Anti – E

(d)     Anti – c                (e)      Anti – e


Q.64. Rhesus antibodies:

a) Are immune antibodies                    b)         Can be extracted from Lectins

c) Are always IgM                                d)         Are always IgG

e) Occur naturally at birth