Clinical Chemistry Theory Paper

Q1.      A molar solution contains: –

a) One mole /litre of solvent

b) One gram molecular weight of solute/liter of solution

c) One mole /litre of solvent

d) Gram molecular weight of solute/litre of solvent

e) One mole solute/litre of solution


Q2.      During the detection of pentoses, the reagent used: –

a) Has barium chloride

b) Gives a red colour when positive

c) Has orcinol

d) Has hydrochloric acid

e) Yields a blue colour when positive


Q3.      To make a buffer solution one needs: –

a) a weak acid and conjugate salt

b) strong acid and weak base

c) weak acid and conjugate acid

d) strong base and conjugate salt

e) strong acid and conjugate base


Q4.      The non-sugar reducing substances which can be detected in urine include:-

a) Gluconic acid

b) creatinine

c) Urea

d) Uric acid

e) Diacetic acid


Q5.      Gastric disorders may be diagnosed by:-

a) Acid level assessment

b) Hart’s test

c) Radiography

d) Clinical history

e) Acidaemia


Q6.      Urea is formed in the body from:-

a) Acetyl- CoA

b) Uric acid

c) Ammonia

d) Carbamide

e) Proteins


Q7.      Below their PI proteins:-

a) Migrate as cations

b) Migrate towards anode

c) Are anions

d) Move towards cathode

e) Are dipolar


Q8.      Harding’s solution ‘B’ has:-

a) Copper sulphate

b) Alkaline tartrate

c) Glucose oxidase

d) Peroxidase enzyme

e) Sodium sulphate


Q9.      The direct reacting bilirubin is also:-

a) Water insoluble

b) Water soluble

c) Alcohol soluble

d) Toxic

e) Non- conjugated


Q10.    Gerhardt’s reagent detects the presence of:-

a) Acetic acid

b) Dimethylketone

c) Acetone

d) Acetoacetic acid

e) Diacetic acid


Q11.    Gastric stimulants include:-

a) Insulin

b) Pentagastrin

c) Glucagon

d) Milk

e) Enterokinase


Q12.    Complexing bilirubin and diazo reagent yields:-

a) Bilirubin glucuronide

b) Reduced bilirubin

c) Diazotised sulphanilic acid

d) Biliverdin

e) Azobilirubin


Q13.    In the body, biological catalysts are:-

a) Salt in nature

b) Enzymes

c) Hormones

d) Specific inactivity

e) Inorganic


Q14.    To preserve glucose standards one can use:-

a) Copper hydroxide

b) Tartrate solution

c) Ammonium oxalate

d) Thymol

e) Benzoic acid


Q15.    A strong base has a pH of 11.8 what is its molarity:-

a) 3

b) 5

c) 2

d) 4

e) 006


Q16.    Features associated with obstructive jaundice include:-

a) High direct bilirubin

b) Bilirubinuria

c) Elevated indirect bilirubin

d) Normal direct bilirubin

e) High urobilinogen


Q17.    The PH of 0.001M HCl is

a) Above 3

b) Above 4

c) 3

d) Below 5

e) 11


Q18. Markers of bone metabolism include: –

a) Acid phosphatase

b) Calcium

c) Vitamin A

d) Phosphates

e) Corticoids


Q19.    The body requires trace amounts of:

a) Amino acids

b) Tyrosine

c) Magnesium

d) Carbohydrates

e) Aldosterone


Q20.    Carcinogenic reagents used in the laboratory include:-

a) Guaiacum

b) Methyl red

c) Congo red

d) Ortho-toluidine

e) Clinitest tablet


Q21.    A peptide chain consists of:-

a) Amide bonds

b) Glycosidic bonds

c) Amino acid residues

d)  bonds

e) Amides


Q22.    If 20 ml of 80 mg/dl glucose standard is diluted to one litre, the resulting solution would be:-

a) 16 mg/dl

b) 6 mg/dl

c) 6 mg/l

d) 40 mg/dl

e) 16 mg/l


Q23.    Total proteins in CSF may be estimated using

a) Maulemann’s reagent

b) Biuret reagent

c) 6% sodium sulphate

d) 3% Sulphosalysalic Acid

e) Pandy’s reagent


Q24.    Buffering capacity:-

a) Depends on the salts

b) Is best above pK

c) Is best near pK of buffer

d) Is best below pK

(e)        Depends on the acid


Q25.    The following tests can be used to detect occult blood in stool:-

a) Haematest

b) Phenolphthalein

c) Phenol hypochlorite

d) Copper reduction

e) Methylamine


12. In the indirect pregnancy kit method, agglutination is interpreted as

a) Positive

b) Negative

c) False positive

d) Not pregnant

e) Pregnant