Clinical Chemistry Theory Paper

Q1.      A molar solution contains: –

a) One mole /litre of solvent

b) One gram molecular weight of solute/liter of solution

c) One mole /litre of solvent

d) Gram molecular weight of solute/litre of solvent

e) One mole solute/litre of solution

 

Q2.      During the detection of pentoses, the reagent used: –

a) Has barium chloride

b) Gives a red colour when positive

c) Has orcinol

d) Has hydrochloric acid

e) Yields a blue colour when positive

 

Q3.      To make a buffer solution one needs: –

a) a weak acid and conjugate salt

b) strong acid and weak base

c) weak acid and conjugate acid

d) strong base and conjugate salt

e) strong acid and conjugate base

 

Q4.      The non-sugar reducing substances which can be detected in urine include:-

a) Gluconic acid

b) creatinine

c) Urea

d) Uric acid

e) Diacetic acid

 

Q5.      Gastric disorders may be diagnosed by:-

a) Acid level assessment

b) Hart’s test

c) Radiography

d) Clinical history

e) Acidaemia

 

Q6.      Urea is formed in the body from:-

a) Acetyl- CoA

b) Uric acid

c) Ammonia

d) Carbamide

e) Proteins

 

Q7.      Below their PI proteins:-

a) Migrate as cations

b) Migrate towards anode

c) Are anions

d) Move towards cathode

e) Are dipolar

 

Q8.      Harding’s solution ‘B’ has:-

a) Copper sulphate

b) Alkaline tartrate

c) Glucose oxidase

d) Peroxidase enzyme

e) Sodium sulphate

 

Q9.      The direct reacting bilirubin is also:-

a) Water insoluble

b) Water soluble

c) Alcohol soluble

d) Toxic

e) Non- conjugated

 

Q10.    Gerhardt’s reagent detects the presence of:-

a) Acetic acid

b) Dimethylketone

c) Acetone

d) Acetoacetic acid

e) Diacetic acid

 

Q11.    Gastric stimulants include:-

a) Insulin

b) Pentagastrin

c) Glucagon

d) Milk

e) Enterokinase

 

Q12.    Complexing bilirubin and diazo reagent yields:-

a) Bilirubin glucuronide

b) Reduced bilirubin

c) Diazotised sulphanilic acid

d) Biliverdin

e) Azobilirubin

 

Q13.    In the body, biological catalysts are:-

a) Salt in nature

b) Enzymes

c) Hormones

d) Specific inactivity

e) Inorganic

 

Q14.    To preserve glucose standards one can use:-

a) Copper hydroxide

b) Tartrate solution

c) Ammonium oxalate

d) Thymol

e) Benzoic acid

 

Q15.    A strong base has a pH of 11.8 what is its molarity:-

a) 3

b) 5

c) 2

d) 4

e) 006

 

Q16.    Features associated with obstructive jaundice include:-

a) High direct bilirubin

b) Bilirubinuria

c) Elevated indirect bilirubin

d) Normal direct bilirubin

e) High urobilinogen

 

Q17.    The PH of 0.001M HCl is

a) Above 3

b) Above 4

c) 3

d) Below 5

e) 11

 

Q18. Markers of bone metabolism include: –

a) Acid phosphatase

b) Calcium

c) Vitamin A

d) Phosphates

e) Corticoids

 

Q19.    The body requires trace amounts of:

a) Amino acids

b) Tyrosine

c) Magnesium

d) Carbohydrates

e) Aldosterone

 

Q20.    Carcinogenic reagents used in the laboratory include:-

a) Guaiacum

b) Methyl red

c) Congo red

d) Ortho-toluidine

e) Clinitest tablet

 

Q21.    A peptide chain consists of:-

a) Amide bonds

b) Glycosidic bonds

c) Amino acid residues

d)  bonds

e) Amides

 

Q22.    If 20 ml of 80 mg/dl glucose standard is diluted to one litre, the resulting solution would be:-

a) 16 mg/dl

b) 6 mg/dl

c) 6 mg/l

d) 40 mg/dl

e) 16 mg/l

 

Q23.    Total proteins in CSF may be estimated using

a) Maulemann’s reagent

b) Biuret reagent

c) 6% sodium sulphate

d) 3% Sulphosalysalic Acid

e) Pandy’s reagent

 

Q24.    Buffering capacity:-

a) Depends on the salts

b) Is best above pK

c) Is best near pK of buffer

d) Is best below pK

(e)        Depends on the acid

 

Q25.    The following tests can be used to detect occult blood in stool:-

a) Haematest

b) Phenolphthalein

c) Phenol hypochlorite

d) Copper reduction

e) Methylamine

 

12. In the indirect pregnancy kit method, agglutination is interpreted as

a) Positive

b) Negative

c) False positive

d) Not pregnant

e) Pregnant