Clinical Chemistry Theory Paper

Q.1.     Bilirubin in the body originates from:

(a)        Red Blood cells

(b)       White Blood cells

(c)        Platelets

(d)       Plasma cells

(e)        Haemoglobin

 

Q.2.     Caffeine benzoate reagent in the Jendrassik and Grof method is used to:

(a)        Convert bilirubin to azobilirubin

(b)       Provide the alkaline medium

(c)        Provide the acidic medium

(d)       Accelerate the conversion of bilirubin to azobilirubin

(e)        Remove turbidity

 

Q.3.     A green filter has a wavelength of:

(a)        540 nm

(b)       600 nm

(c)        470 nm

(d)       700 nm

(e)        630 nm

 

Q.4.     The main serum protein fractions are:

(a)        Albumin

(b)       Fibrinogen

(c)        Globulin

(d)       Haemoglobin

(e)        Globin

 

Q.5.     Serum urea value of 60 mg/dl is considered:

(a) Normal

(b) Increased

(c) Decreased

(d) 10 mmol/L

(e) 60 mmol/L

 

Q.6.     The role of peroxidase enzyme in the glucose oxidase method is to:

(a)  Oxidise glucose

(b) develop the colour

(c)   Oxidise hydrogen peroxide

(d)  Liberate oxygen

(e)  Combine with oxygen

 

Q.7.     C.S.F. Chloride levels are high compared to blood because:

a) They balance ionic charges

b) Protein levels are low

c) Sodium levels are high

d) Sodium levels are low

e) They have no function in the C.S.F.

 

Q.8.     A C.S.F. glucose level of 4.0 mmol/l by alkaline copper reduction method is:

a) Normal

b) Above normal

c) Below normal

d) 40 mg/dl

e) 72 mg/dl

 

Q.9.     Glucose oxidase test is:

a) Colour reaction

b) Enzyme test

c) Osazone test

d) Fermentation test

e) Copper test

 

Q.10.   Excess globulins in C.S.F.may not be detected by:

a) Mac lagan method

b) Maulemann’s reagent

c) Pandy’s test

d) Nonne – Apelt’s test

e) 3% Trichloroacetic acid

 

Q.11.   Seliwanoff’s reagent is composed of:

a) NaOH

b) HCl

c) Orcinol

d) H2 SO4

e) Resorcinol

 

Q.12.   Excess acetyl COA during the breakdown of fate forms:

a) Glucose

b) Carbon monoxide

c) Acetoacetic acid

d) Cholesterol

e) Oxygen

 

Q.13.   Rothera’s reagent is composed of:

a) Dilute Ammonia

b) Ammonium Sulphate

c) Ammonium Carbonate

d) Ferric Chloride

e) Sodium Salicylate

 

Q.14.   Large amounts of sodium urates in urine may be suggestive of:

a) Hepatitis

b) Renal failure

c) Muscle damage

d) Diabetes mellitus

e) Gout

 

Q.15.   Creatinine is formed in the body as a result of:

a) Loss of methyl group

b) Loss of Phosphoric acid

c) Loss of Carbon dioxide

d) Loss of water

e) Loss of Ammonia

 

Q.16.   The clinician assesses the degree of renal failure by the results of:

a) Urea

b) Cholesterol

c) Creatinine

d) Uric acid

e) Ammonia

 

Q.17.   The electrolyte most useful in acid-base balance is:

a) Na+

b) K+

c) HCO3

d) Cl

e) Mg2+

 

Q.18.   The diluent of choice in serum electrolyte determination is/are:

a) Distilled water

b) Deionised water

c) Isotonic saline

d) Tap water

e) Normal saline

 

Q.19.   In which class of enzymes does amylase belong?

a) Transferase

b) Isomerase

c) Hydrolase

d) Dehydrogenase

e) Lyase

 

Q.20. Which of the following method may estimate Uric acid:

a) Somogyi

b) Asatoor and King

c) Uricase

d) Brown’s

e) Armstrong

 

Q.21.   Hay’s test is used to detect:

a) Bile salts

b) Fructose

c) Glucose

d) Sodium deoxycholate

e) Acetoacetic acid

 

Q.22.   Clinistix contains the following enzymes:

a) Hydrogen peroxide

b) Peroxidase

c) Glucose oxidase

d) Transaminase

e) Catalase

 

Q.23.   A complete breakdown of fats yields:

a) Ketones

b) Energy

c) Phosphoric acid

d) Cholesterol

e) T.P.

 

Q.24.   Polycythaemia is associated with elevation of:

a) Glucose

b) Creatinine

c) Uric acid

d) Cholesterol

e) Urea

 

Q.25.   Which of the following is absent in serum?

a) Albumin

b) Fibrinogen

c) Globulin

d) Urea

e) Creatinine