Blood Transfusion Theory Paper

1. The following are components of blood EXCEPT for ce

a) Plasma,

b) Erythrocytes

c) Leucocytes

d) pathological saline


2.Which of the following is not a role of blood

a) Transportation of nutrients vital for normal body functioning

b) Transportation of hormones from endocrine glands to the destination in the body

c) Maintenance of body PH at 7.36 – 7.42

d) Maintaining body balance


3 The function of blood transfusion sciences includes the following EXCEPT

a) manufacturing of blood products

b) collection of blood from donors

c) storage of blood

d) Supply of blood


4 Immunoglobulin can be defined as:

a) A plasma protein found in the globulin fraction.

b) An antibody which causes clumping together of red cells that contain the corresponding antigen

c) A red cell antigen associated with agglutination (clumping) when mixed with specific agglutinin.

D) An antibody which fixes complement when it combines with corresponding antigen resulting into lysis of red cells (hemolysis)


5 An Antigen reacts with

a) Antigen

b) Specific antibody

c) Antibody

d) Immunogen


6 Antibodies are found in the following :

a) Surface of erythrocytes

b) Intracellular fluid

c) Plasma

d) Interstitial section of a cell


7  Which of the following is a major characteristic of an antigen:

a) Specificity

b) Selectivity

c) Immunogenicity

d) Reactivity


8 Who among the following discovered rhesus blood grouping system:

a) Vasco da Gama

b) Landsteiner and Weiner

c) Marcucus

d) Jeffersons


9 The possible genotype of phenotype B is:

a) AO and AA

b) BB and BO

c) AB

d) OO


10 Which of the following is a rare blood group?

a) ABH null

b)c) O Positive

c) B Negative

d) O negative


11 The blood group of an individual is determined by:

a) Presence of A and B.

b) The surface antigenic sites

c) The antigen found on the Rbc

d) The absence of antigen A and B


12 Which of the following describes reverse grouping technique

a) Known antibodies are used to detect antigen on red blood cells.

b) Known cells are used to detect the antibodies in the serum.

c) Washing of cells using large volumes of saline.

d) mixing of cells and physiological saline in a test tube.


13 Rhesus negative individual lacks the following antigen

a) A

b) B

c) D

d) None of the above


14 Most of the rhesus antibodies are immune antibodies and are produced through

a) Pregnancy

b) Blood transfusion

c) Auto immune disease

d) Bleeding


15 the zeta potential of the red cell

a) Produces a positive ionic charge

b) Attracts a negative charge

c) Is measured at the membrane surface

d) Results from a net negative red cell membrane charge


16.Role of albumin in blood transfusion sciences technique

a) To enhance antibody-antigen reaction

b) To catalyze the antigen-antibody reaction

C) To increase antibody titer

d) To neutralize the antigen-antibody reaction



17 which of the following blood group is a universal donor

a) A Positive

b) AB Positive

c) O Positive

d) O Negative


18 Which of the following reagent is used  in Direct Coombs test

a) Anti-human globulin

b) 2%Sodium chloride solution

c) Plasma

d) Anti-sera

19 What is the role of Anti-human globulin reagent

a) Forms a bridge between the antibodies

b) ms a bridge between antigens

c) For visualization

d)  For coloration


20 alse negative results for Direct Coombs test are caused by the following EXCEPT:

a) Failure to wash red cells properly

b) Use of impotent or expired AHG

c) Use of AHG lacking the antibody corresponding to the subclass of Ig responsible for red cell sensitization.

d) Failure to use a binocular microscope to detect the reaction


21. Phytoagglutinins (lectins) are :

a) Extracts from plants and seeds

b) Extracts from  hides and skin

c) Extracts from hardwood

d) Extracts from insects


22.Factors affecting antigen-antibody reaction include the following  EXCEPT:

a) Antigen and antibody concentration

b) PH

c) Temparature

d) Equipment


23. What is the purpose of control in grouping and cross matching techniques?

a) Classifies the laboratory performing the test

b) Determines the knowledge of staff

c) They act as a check the suitability of reagents and techniques used.

d) It justifies the test cost


24 which of the following diseases is not screened for the donor”s blood?

a) HIV

b) Hepatitis B

c) Syphillis

d) Wilson’s


25. What is the purpose of cross-matching?

a) To determine serological compatibility between a blood donor and an intended recipient before blood is transfused.

b) To determine the volume of blood to be transfused

c) To determine the viscosity of blood

d) To determine gender compatibility


26  how many crossmatch techniques are there?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4


27. What is the purpose of major crossmatch

a) to detect antibodies in the donor’s serum

b) to detect antibodies in the recipient’s serum

c) To detect unwashable antibodies

d) To detect unwashable antigens


28.  Which of the following is not a phase in crossmatch technique

a) Saline room temperature phase

b) Saline 37oC phase

c) Albumin room temperature phase

d) Coombs37oC phase


29  Which of the following enzyme is not related to crossmatch technique

a) Amylase

b) ficin,

c) papain

d) trypsin


30 What is the age limit of a blood donor in Kenya

a) 17-65years

b) 30-50 years

c) 12-45 years

d) 10-35 years


31  How long should a previous donor wait before the next donation?

a) Interval of at least one month for men and two months for women.

b) Interval of at least two months for men and six months for women.

c) Interval of at least four months for men and six months for women.

d) Interval of at least four months for men and one year for women.


32  which of the following is used to determine Hb for the prospective donors?

a) Copper sulfate method

b) Copper dichromate method

c) Copper bicarbonate

d) Copper chloride method


33  If the drop of blood has a satisfactory hemoglobin concentration,

a) will sink in the solution within 15 seconds.

b) remain suspended

c) will sink slightly and then rise to the top of the solution within 15 seconds.

d) Nothing will happen


34 Which of the following Anticoagulants is  used in blood donation

a) CPD (citrate- phosphate dextrose).

b) Sodium fluoride


d) Heparin


35. which of the following is not an advantage of CPD over ACD.

a) Contains less acid.

b) Gives less hemolysis

c) Smaller leak of potassium from the red cells.

d) Reduces post-transfusion survival of red cells.


36  The term  Plasmapheresis is  defined as:

a) collection of donor plasma by apheresis.

b) collection of donor platelets by apheresis

c) collection of recipient platelets by apheresis

d) collection of recipient plasma by apheresis


37. Which of the following is not a blood product?

a) Fresh Frozen plasma

b) Packed cell

c) Cryoprecipitate

d) Albumin


38c. Indication  for giving platelets

a) People with profuse bleeding

b) Given to prevent febrile transfusion reaction emanating from WBC’s

c) Given to patients with rare blood group or patients with antibodies to a high-frequency antigen

d) Given to patients with thrombocytopenia ( platelets less than < 20 x 109/L)


39  The storage temperature for cryoprecipitate is:

a) Deep freeze with glycerol at -80oC for 5 yrs

b) -18oC for 1 yr.

c) -30oC or – 18oC for 1 yr.

d) at room temperature (24OC) for 5 days


40 What is the appropriate amount of donated blood

a) 450 ml

b) 1000ml

c) 200ml

d) 900ml


41 blood donation procedure must be undertaken by:

(a)Trained personnel

(b) health workers

(c)people working in the laboratory

(d)anybody with good eyesight


42. blood transfusion reaction can be defined as:

a) Any unfavorable response by a patient that occurs as a result of the transfusion of blood or blood products

bb) All reaction process during the analysis

c) Antibody antigen reactions

d) Reactions that occur to a donor after donation


43: One of the following is a type of blood transfusion reaction:

(a)Intravascular reaction (in the veins)

(b)pack reaction

(c) laboratory reaction

(d) pilot tube reaction


44:In what percentage are cell suspension commonly used:

a) 2-3

b) 5-8

c) 3-5

d) 6-9


(45) Treatment of Infants Suffering from Haemolytic Disease of newborn includes:

a) exchange transfusion

b) continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis

c) hemodialysis

d) counter diffusion


45:The following could be the most appropriate area to get voluntarily blood donors

a) hospital wards

b) mental hospital

c) military camps

d) primary school


(46) Hemolytic reactions may be defined as

a) the occurrence of abnormal destruction of red cells of either the donor or recipient following the transfusion of incompatible blood.

b) usually associated with erythrocyte hemolysis,

c) breaking down of leucocytes

d) breaking down of thrombocytes


47: Cold chain steps include the following EXCEPT

a) donation

b) processing

c) storage

d) donor recruitment


(48) Autologous donation is defined as:

a) Donation of blood for one’s self

b) Donation of blood for a family member

c) Donation of blood products

d) Donation of body fluids


(49) which one off the following is not a major antibody:


(b) IgG




(50) rouleaux formation can be defined as:

a) the piling up of cells on top each other and appears as coins

b) scattering of cells

c) seperation of cells

d) non of the above


(51)The following is one of the risks of blood transfusion in the recipient:

a) loss of appetite

b) loss of weight

c) blood group alteration

d) hepatitis infection


52: Donor notification is a process that entails:

a) Donor screening and selection:

b) Phlebotomy

c) Post donation care

d) It’s the process of giving the donors the test results through counseling



(a)Blood Transport Boxes, Refrigerators, Plasma Freezers, Platelets Agitator

(b) Blood Transport Boxes, Refrigerators, Plasma Freezers, microscope

(c) Blood Transport Boxes, Refrigerators, water bath, Platelets Agitator

(d) Blood Transport boxes,centrifuge , Plasma Freezers, Platelets Agitator