Blood Transfusion Theory Paper

Q1.     An immune response depends on:

a) Sex

b) Race

c) Altitude

d) Immunogenecity

e) Dose of antigen


Q2.     Nucleated cells involved in fighting infections and making antibodies are called?

a) Lymphocytes

b) Thrombocytes

c) Histiocytes

d) Mast cells

e) Erythrocytes


Q3.     The force at the boundary of shear due to differences in electrostatic

potential is called:

a) Ionic cloud

b) Slipping plane

c) Dielectric constant

d) Zeta potential

e) Isoelectric point


Q4.     An antibody with unknown antigenic stimulus is called?

a) Heterophile antibody

b) Natural antibody

c) Monoclonal antibody

d) Irregular antibody

e) Anti-complement


Q5.     Low ionic strength saline (LISS) is preferred more than isotonic saline


a)b) Cells suspended in it rarely lyse compared with isotonic saline

b) It decreases the chances of abnormal antigen-antibody interactions

c) It is cheaper than isotonic saline

d) It increases rapid uptake of antibodies on to red cells

e) It requires shorter incubation time


Q6.     Antibodies that do not cause agglutination of cells are:

a) Unblocking

b) Complete antibodies

c) Sensitizing antibodies

d) Incomplete antibodies

e) Saliva agglutinins




Q7.     Which of these components are synthesized in the liver:

a) C9

b) C4

c) C2

d) C6

e) C1


Q8.     The following has the capacity to activate the C1 q, r, s assembly:

a) Ig A

b) Ig E

c) Ig M

d) Ig D

e) C4


Q9.     “H” and “A” genes, code for the addition of:

(a)      D – galactose

b) N- acetylgalactosamine

c) Fructose

d) L – fucose

e) N- acetylglucosamine


Q10.   Candidates for Rhogam must satisfy the following conditions:

(a)      The mother must be Rh Positive

b) The newborn must be Rh Positive and jaundiced

c) The mother must be Rh Negative

e) The mother must be Rh Negative and antibody screening positive

e) The mother must be Rhesus Positive with high titre of anti-D


Q11,   Given the phenotype as DĉE.  The following are possible genotype:

(a)      R2 r’’

b) RoR2

c) R2 r’

d) R2 R2

e) R2 RZ


Q12.   Incidence of rouleaux formation is higher in patients suffering from:

(a)      Malaria

(b)      Kala-azar

(c)      Trachoma

(d)      Dysentery

(e)      Multiple myeloma


Q13.   Avidity refers to:

a) Strength of an antibody

b) Type of an antibody

c) Concentration of the antigen

d) False positive

e) Time taken for the reaction to occur


Q14.   Which of the following is correct about Oh phenotype:

a) A,B genes are always absent

b) The ‘H’ gene is absent

c) The ‘h’ gene is absent

d) RBC’s carry only ‘H’ antigens

e) The serum contains anti-A,anti-B,anti-H


Q15.   The source of lectin anti-A1 is:

(a)      Dolichos biflorus

b) Iberis amara

c) Lotus tetragonolobus

) Vicia graminea

e) Ulex europeaus


Q16.   Serum from group B agglutinates

(a)      A2 cells

b) O cells

c) B cells

d) Oh cells

e) A1 cells


Q17.   The albumin – 37°c phase of cross-match will detect the following


(a)      Regular anti-A and anti-B

(b)      Immune anti-A and anti-B

(c)      Rhesus antibodies

(d)      Anti-P.

(e)      Anti-M.


Q18.   Low grade Du:

(a)      Can be considered as Rh-negative donor.

b) Can be falsely typed as Rh Negative

c) Is easily detected using saline anti-D

d) Is considered as an Rh Positive donor

e) Is not easily detected using Anti-human Globulin


Q19.   When natural antibody A is mixed and incubated with it’s corresponding

blood group specific substance, the following takes place.

a) Agglutination

b) Inhibition of Anti-A

c) Haemolysis

d) Precipitation

e) Neutralization of Anti-A


Q20.   Which of these blood group systems can cause haemolytic disease of the


a) Kell

b) MN

c) Kidd

d) P

e) Xg


Q21.   Washed red cells are indicated in:

a) Severe anaemia

b) Platelet deficiency

c) Bleeding disorders

d) Patient with leukocyte antibodies

e) Protozoal injections


Q22.   The Anti-human Globulin phase in antibody screening test detects:

a) Incomplete antibodies

b) Cold antibodies

c) Natural antibodies

d) Antibodies that react at 4°c

e) Iso-antibodies


Q23.   Which of these is included in the CPDA, solution:

(a)      Sodium chloride

b) Adenine

c) Glycerol

d) Arabinose

e) Fructose


Q24.   Which of these blood group systems exhibits dosage:

(a)      ABO

b) Lewis

c) Rhesus

d) MNSs

e) P system


Q25.   Mulberry-like agglutination is characteristic of:

a) Lewis system

b) Kell system

c) MNSs system

d) Lutheran system

e) P system



Q26.   Which of these may bar a volunteer donor:

a) Recent history of vaccination

b) Age 18-65

c) Good physique

d) Hb concentration of 13 g/dl

e) The last donation was four months ago


Q27.   Which of these changes occur in refrigerated blood:

(a)      Red cells become more viable

b) The plasma becomes xanthochromic

(c)      Red cells lose viability

(d)      The effect of anticoagulant improves

(e)      The dextrose level becomes elevated


Q28.   Synthetic plasma expanders in serum may cause:

a) Haemolysis

b) Elution

c) Sensitization

d) Agglutination

e) Rouleaux f0rmation